Before reading this article, I've always thought that the only way for the poor to escape poverty is to either work or seek help. Which is why this article caught my attention. After reading this article, it pushed me to thinking, if more people in the family goes out to work, will they be a family with normal financial status then: but then again, even if they go out to work, what if the company/organization that they work for, do not give them a fair wage? Then at the same time, they cannot get out of poverty. Also, what is the prices of items rise, then this way, they also won't be able to get out of poverty. In my opinion, the government should work on this and find out how to make the poor get out of poverty and they should execute the plan that they have and should it fail, they should move on to another plan.
iHow should you measure poverty? It is a question that has generated enormous controversy in India.
India: a place that is known to be very, very poor to almost everyone. It's not a fake fact. But the truth is, is there really a lot of poor people in India or is it equivalent to people in India who are having a normal financial status? This article pushed me to thinking why isn't the government doing anything to help the people? And if they are doing something, why isn't it good enough to able to help at least half of the population in India? Why are there as many as 680 million people in India who are poor? Is anyone in the government actually doing anything and how does the poor in India feel? In my opinion, the government should be putting more effort into thinking of how to help the poor in their country as it is as many as 680 million of poor people. And also, the world should at least contribute into doing something for them such as maybe a world organization for donations to India
The world’s 85 richest individuals possess as much wealth as the 3.5 billion souls who compose the poorer half of the world’s population, or so it was announced in a report by Oxfam International. The assertion sounds implausible to me. I think the 85 richest individuals, who together are worth many hundreds of billions of dollars, must have far more wealth than the poorest half of our global population.
How could these two cohorts, the 85 richest and 3.5 billion poorest, have the same amount of wealth? The great majority of the 3.5 billion have no net wealth at all. Hundreds of millions of them have jobs that hardly pay enough to feed their families. Millions of them rely on supplements from private charity and public assistance when they can. Hundreds of millions are undernourished, suffer food insecurity, or go hungry each month, including many among the very poorest in the United States.
I knew that there were many people who were rich as there were many people who are poor. But I didn't know that the amount of poor people would be so much as to 3.5 billion. This article pushed me to thinking that do the wealth actually do any philanthropy? And if they do, how much do they actually give and how many people can be saved with that money? Why is this happening as to why is there unequal share or spending of money? After reading this article, I've realized that though we are fine in financial debts, we might have troubles with health cares, college tuition debts etc. Meaning, even if we are rich or normal in financial status, we might not be in other issues, instead we might be poor.
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