Interesting analysis that tries to answer the question:
<<How do Republican proponents of all these new voting requirements justify what they are doing when they know that Pennsylvania's Mike Turzai revealed the truth about their motives -- nothing to do with voter fraud. The aim is to suppress the Democratic vote, largely in relatively poor minority communities.
If any shred of doubt as to motivation remained in anybody's mind, it could not withstand the example of the voting commissioners of Ohio systematically restricting early voting in Democratic areas while allowing it in Republican areas -- and that was, until the pressure got too great, with the support of the Republican Secretary of State.
So, somehow, these people -- in this case, not just decent family men and women, but many committed Christian patriots as well -- how do they justify disenfranchising voters in those districts in particular?>>
Could it be reliance on the old principle that only property owners, the richest Americans, have sufficient stake in America to be responsible voters?